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Gangsta Boogie
Join Date: Mar 2003
Location: My business, Population...1
Posts: 40,811
Credits: 700
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Originally Posted by 24/7
Well aside from the "no man knows the day nor the hour" escape clause, it is made more than clear in the bible the authors of the New Testament and those who [I would say] placed words in Jesus' mouth expected his return in their day and age. An example is in first Peter where the author writes to his audience and tells them they were living in the "last days" only to find [perhaps] the same author backtracking in his next book.
In the book of Mark as Jesus stands in front of the High Priest, he is asked by said High Priest if he (Jesus) was the one. Jesus tells him [allegedly] that he [the High priest] would be alive to see him come back in glory with his angels. That High priest is dead 2,000 years over now.
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I really don't think you have a case on any account:
Assuming that the story of Lazarus is correct, then it's quite possible that the high priest can be brought back to life therefore fulfilling the prophecy/promise.
Your interpretation of the passage in I Peter was a literal one...is that how the speaker meant it to his audience? Are we privy to the conversation, sufficient to say that they could not have interpreted his statements in a more figurative light?
Whom do you indict for this 'broken promise' of Christ not returning on time? Do you indict Christ himself? How? He never gave a specific date and hour did he?
Do you indict those that tell the story second-hand? How do we know that (again) they were being literal when they gave their dates...or that they were accurate in their counts...I mean they were men after all...men aren't infallible, are they?
Say nothing of the differences in how we measure time now, relative to then...we mighta get throw off somewhey in de counting  |